No, that's not my point at all, and not a logical extension of what I'm saying.By your argument, it sounds like you're suggesting an untrained individual can react just as well, so by default, training is unnecessary.
I'm not saying we /should/ live in the exact same way people did in 1780. I'm saying the right existed to own guns for the premise of self defense long before civilian training existed outside military, and they were quite ok with that. Keep in point... firearms training existed. It was mainly reserved for military and family target shooting, mentoring, and self-teaching - not an available public asset. So it did exist. This means it's not akin to medical advances. Medicine was not available to some, but not most... ti wasn't available as it is today to anyone.
I'm saying that despite the lack of civilian training programs, the founders and society long after, saw no reason to infringe on the rights that 'shall not be infringe'.
I'm also not saying an untrained individual can react just as well, nor did I say training is unnecessary. There's a difference between "should get" and "must get". I should people should get training if they carry a gun. I don't think they MUST get it before they're /allowed/ to carry that gun.