Back when I was 20 years old, my parents asked me but I wanted for my birthday. I told them that I had wanted an AR 15 for my birthday but I wanted to build it myself. I told my parents that all I wanted from them was the AR lower. I had looked around at a few local gun shops and found a lower that I wanted to buy for the build. Knowing that I was unable to buy stripped lower at the time, my parents went with me to the shop to purchase the AR lower for me. when we got there I pointed out what I wanted and they asked for my ID. I then said that they were going to be purchasing it for me, my parent, and that they needed to use all the purchasing forms. The person behind the counter then proceeded to say that since I was going to be the person in possession of the lower, that I would have to be the one to give my identification and fill out all of the forms. I proceeded to state that I was just a month or so before turning 21 and that they were just going to buy it for me as a present, but that I still was not a criminal and I have previously bought long guns from gun stores in the past, so I am fully able to legally possess the firearms. The clerk behind the counter then proceeded to explode on me and my parent saying that if he wanted to, and what he normally does in the past, is just take my identification going to the back and then call his FBI friend and then they would come and arrest me and that I would go to jail for up to 20 years, both me and my parent.
My question is, is this the true intent of the straw purchase laws. I mean, how was a father supposed to go to a store and buy a rifle for his son. Or how is a wife supposed to go to a gun store and then say that she is purchasing a gun for her husband. Would that not be the same thing? I just feel that the laws were intended for a different purpose, to prevent people purchasing firearms for people who were not allowed to possess them. Am I wrong for thinking this, if so someone please let me know.
My question is, is this the true intent of the straw purchase laws. I mean, how was a father supposed to go to a store and buy a rifle for his son. Or how is a wife supposed to go to a gun store and then say that she is purchasing a gun for her husband. Would that not be the same thing? I just feel that the laws were intended for a different purpose, to prevent people purchasing firearms for people who were not allowed to possess them. Am I wrong for thinking this, if so someone please let me know.
Last edited: